1. Percentiles are __________ transformations of raw z-scores, t-scores, and IQ scores.
a) Non-linear
b) Linear
c) Absolute
d) Sampled
2. In the Circle of Willis, the anterior communicating artery bridges:
a) The anterior cerebral artery to the middle cerebral artery
b) The left anterior cerebral artery to the right anterior cerebral artery
c) The basilar artery to the anterior cerebral artery
d) The carotid artery to the anterior cerebral artery
3. In comparing Alzheimer’s Disease (AD) patients to Dementia with Lewy Bodies (DLB) patients during the mild dementia period, typically:
a) AD patients do better on confrontation naming tests
b) AD patients have day-to-day fluctuations in cognition but DLB patients do not
c) AD patients exhibit parkinsonism while DLB patients do not
d) depression and hallucinations are more common in DLB patients while delusions are more common in AD patients
4. According to Posner & Peterson’s model of attention; the posterior attention system is responsible for _______________ whereas the anterior attention system is associated with ____________________:
a) Signal detection / orienting and awareness of environment
b) Disengagement of attention / shifting of attention
c) Orienting and awareness of environment / signal detection
d) Shifting of attention / disengagement of attention
5. The most common neurologic manifestation of HIV is:
a) multifocal leukoencephalopathy characterized by loss of strength in a limb
b) toxoplasmosis-related seizures, altered mentation and aseptic meningitis
c) emotional lability and delirium associated with HIV-associated dementia
d) all of the above
6. A 32-year-old patient who does significantly worse on neuropsychological testing than he is capable of because he wants sympathy for his difficulties following a TBI is:
a) Showing a positive response bias
b) Malingering
c) Experiencing a Major Depressive Episode
d) Exhibiting a Factitious disorder
7. Which is false?
a) The Standard Error of Measurement is inversely related to the reliability of the test
b) There is a single Standard Error of Measurement for a test score, regardless of the level of performance.
c) The standard deviation of the sample must be known to calculate the Standard Error of Measurement
d) Confidence intervals based on the Standard Error of Measurement assume error distributions are normally distributed and homoscedastic.
8. Which of the following is considered the classic indication of normal pressure hydrocephalus?
a) Headache worse in the evening
b) Cushing’s Triad (hypertension, bradycardia, irregular respirations)
c) Diplopia, attentional problems
d) Dementia/mental decline, gait difficulties, urinary incontinence
9. The amygdale have been consistently identified as playing a crucial role in:
a) The perception of emotional cues
b) The production of emotional responses
c) Neither A nor B
d) A & B
10. Which of the following differentiates diencephalic amnesia from bilateral temporal lobe amnesia?
a) Rate of forgetting
b) Pattern of retrograde amnesia
c) Autobiographic memory
d) Temporal ordering impairment
11. The striatum receives most of its blood supply from the?
a) Superior cerebellar artery
b) Middle cerebral artery
c) Lenticulostriate arteries
d) Both b and c
12. Statistical significance is:
a) The likelihood that the dependent variable caused the effect in the independent variable due to non-chance differences
b) The practical value or importance of the effect or intervention
c) The extent to which an investigation can detect a difference when a difference exists
d) A direct function of sample size
13. The Geshwind-Galaburda Theory proposes that embryonic surges of testosterone delay the development of which hemisphere in males?
a) Left
b) Right
c) Both
d) Neither, only the diencephalon
14. If you placed a common object such as a key or pencil in the left hand of a typical commissurotomy patient, out of sight of the person, they:
a) Could find a similar object with their other hand
b) Could not feel the object
c) Could identify the object verbally
d) Could recognize the object, but not call out its name
15. A patient presents with the chief complaint he is having trouble concentrating. He is not having any interpersonal difficulty with his co-workers or significant other. However, he displays irritable mood and distractibility, feels like his thoughts are racing, feels rested after only 3 hours of sleep, and talks non-stop. Drug testing is negative. The most likely diagnosis is:
a) Major Depressive Disorder
b) Bipolar II
c) Bipolar I
d) Primary Insomnia
16. A patient with cortical blindness:
a) May be able to insert an envelope into a slot
b) Will always be aware of their deficit
c) Will report the world seems drained of color
d) Has intact portions of the retinotopic map in the primary visual cortex
17. A patient who can not speak fluently but can comprehend and repeat phrases has:
a) Broca’s aphasia
b) Wernicke’s aphasia
c) Transcortical motor aphasia
d) Transcortical mixed aphasia
18. Which of the following characteristics most reliably distinguishes vascular dementia from Alzheimer’s dementia?
a) Stepwise development
b) MRI that shows atrophy
c) Encoding rather than consolidation deficits on memory testing
d) Focal neurological findings and the presence of either diffuse or focal cognitive findings
19. Lesions causing achromatopsia often cause what other disorder?
a) Palinopsia
b) Alexia with agraphia
c) Prosopagnosia
d) Color anomia
20. Which thalamic nuclei is part of the visual pathway?
a) Dorsomedial nuclei
b) Lateral geniculate nucleus
c) Medial geniculate nucleus
d) Lateral Posterior
21. Dr. X conducts neuropsychological screening assessments to ensure that elderly patients who are candidates for a particular treatment are not showing signs of dementia. In order to increase the _______ of her tests, Dr. X uses ethnically-adjusted cut-offs for patients from ethnic minority groups.
a) sensitivity
b) positive predictive value
c) specificity
d) reliability
22. Difficulty recalling events following an injury is called ________________, while difficulty recalling previously learned information because learning new information interfered is called __________________.
a) Retrograde amnesia; retroactive interference
b) Retrograde amnesia; proactive interference
c) Anterograde amnesia; retroactive interference
d) Anterograde amnesia; proactive interference
23. Which diffuse modulatory system neurotransmitter to nuclei pairing is incorrect?
a) Basal Nucleus of Meynert and acetylcholine
b) Raphe Nuceli and serotonin
c) Locus Coeruleus and epinephrine
d) Ventral Tegmental Area and dopamine
24. The ________ pathway is involved with the visual perception of where objects are and the ________ pathway is involved with the visual analysis of what objects are.
a) Ventral, dorsal
b) Dorsal, ventral
c) Rostral, caudal
d) Caudal, ventral
25. All of the following are true about Locked-in Syndrome except:
a) It is typically a ventral pons lesion affecting bilateral corticospinal and corticobulbar tracts
b) Vertical eye movements and eye openings are spared
c) Spinal cord and cranial nerve receive no input from cortex
d) Pontine infarcts initially result in dysarthria and clumsy-hand syndrome
26. A lesion in the cerebellum will cause ________ upper extremity tremor.
a) Ipsilateral
b) Contralateral
c) Bilateral
d) No
27. Which of the following statements is true regarding the longitudinal course of neurocognitive impairments in individuals with schizophrenia?
a) Cognitive functioning, particularly verbal skills, declines following the first psychotic break.
b) Measureable cognitive deficits, most often in attention, are seen prior to the first psychotic break.
c) Cognitive functioning, particularly executive functions, improves following initiation of anti-psychotic medication.
d) Neurocognitive functioning progressively declines throughout the adult years and is correlated with positive psychotic symptoms.
28. All aphasias involve which of the following?
a) Conduit’ d’ approche
b) Ideomotor apraxia
c) Anomia
d) Contralateral hemiparesis
29. Which of the following is not a correctly defined subtype of Math Disorder:
a) Difficulty performing operations is anarithmetria
b) A deficit in knowledge of concepts is acalculia with verbal deficits
c) Difficulty organizing and manipulating numbers spatially is spatial dyscalculia
d) A deficit in attention causing numbers to be copied down incorrectly or neglect of operational signs (e.g. + or -) is sensory neglect.
30. Atrophy associated with normal aging generally reflects a loss of:
a. Myelin
b. Grey matter in the striatum and thalamus
c. Neurons in the primary visual cortex
d. Neurons in the frontal lobes
31. Recognizing a friend is a kind of __________ memory.
a) Implicit
b) Semantic
c) Autobiographical
d) Episodic
32. A 70 year old man who has normal physical function and is still successfully running a small business, believes that the President of the United States’ wife (whom he has never met) is in love with him. He has been questioned by the Secret Service following repeated attempts to contact the First Lady. His most likely diagnosis would be:
a) Folie a Deux (Shared Psychotic Disorder)
b) Schizophrenia, Continuous
c) Delusional Disorder, Erotomanic Type
d) Dementia of the Alzheimer’s Type
33. The Papez circuit refers to:
a) Neuroanatomical structures involved in aggression, including the septum, diagonal band of Broca, and insula.
b) The Long Term Potentiation pathway in the Hippocampus, including CA1 through CA3
c) Neuroanatomical structures involved in olfaction, including the olfactory bulb, olfactory tract, uncus and amygdala.
d) Neuroanatomical structures involved in emotion and memory, including hippocampus, cingulate, mamillary bodies, fimbria, and insula.
34. In reviewing a patient’s medical records prior to an assessment you notice that the patient is reported to have a deficit of the first cranial nerve (CN I). You expect the patient to:
a) Perform poorly on tests requiring visual scanning and also have difficulty in recognizing friends’ voices
b) Perform poorly on the Smell Identification Test, and also have difficulty with impulse control
c) Perform poorly on tests involving auditorily-presented information and also have difficulty in recognizing friends’ voices
d) Perform poorly on the Smell Identification Test, and also have agraphesthesia
35. Which of the following is not a benefit of computerized neuropsychological testing:
a) Increased consistency of administration procedures
b) Greater precision in measuring reaction times
c) Decreased need for clinical interpretation
d) Automated data collection and storage
36. You are designing a longitudinal study of neuropsychological outcomes in normal adults utilizing the same test battery for 4 assessments over a 4 year span. Which of the following statements is most true regarding practice effects:
a) An equal improvement in the test scores across the four assessments is expected, due to practice effects.
b) The greatest improvement in test scores due to practice effects will be evident between the first and second assessments.
c) The greatest improvement in test scores due to practice effects will be evident between the third and fourth assessments.
d) Practice effects are unlikely if the assessments are at least one year apart.
37. A child is tested in 2003 with the WISC-3, yielding a Full Scale IQ of 97. A year later, he receives the WISC-4, yielding a full scale IQ of 93. Which of the following best explains the difference in scores?
a) Practice effect
b) Flynn effect
c) Standard error of measurement
d) Statistical regression to the mean
38. Deficits in which of the following cognitive domains is most commonly seen in early deterioration of children with x-linked adrenoleukodystrophy:
a) Memory encoding and retention
b) Language articulation
c) Visual-perception
d) Phonetic decoding
39. You receive a referral to assess a 73 year old widowed man with symptoms of emotional changes and significant lability, worsening memory, and difficulty completing the tasks of everyday living without assistance from his 43 year old daughter who does not live in the home. The daughter is aware of this referral. The best way to proceed in completing this assessment would be:
a) Assess this man alone, as he is above the age of consent and currently living independently
b) Ask his daughter to attend the assessment, to provide consent for assessment if decisional capacity is in question
c) Ask his daughter to attend the assessment to ensure this man keeps his appointment
d) Assess this man alone as there is no indication that his capacity is impaired
40. The concept of cognitive reserve has been used to explain the fact that across individuals, there is not a direct relationship between brain pathology or damage and the degree of disruption in performance. Which of the following variables should not be used as a proxy for cognitive reserve:
a) Education level
b) Scores on the NART word reading test
c) Scores on a Digit-Symbol coding test
d) WAIS Vocabulary subtest
41. Cognitive functioning in multiple sclerosis (MS) is characterized by:
a) Subcortical and frontal dysfunction
b) Preserved executive functioning
c) Strengths in processing speed and working memory
d) Impaired immediate auditory attention span
42. The limbic system is important for _ _ , which involves this key structure ___:
a) Homeostasis; hypothalamus
b) Olfaction; orbital frontal cortex
c) Memory; cingulate gyrus
d) Emotions and drives; hippocampal formation
43. Procedural memory is often associated with the
a) Basal ganglia
b) Cerebellum
c) Motor cortex
d) All of the above
44. In patients in the early stages of Alzheimer’s disease, WAIS profiles usually show:
a) Block Design is higher than Vocabulary
b) High scores are obtained on Information, Vocabulary, and Comprehension
c) High scores are obtained on digit symbol and digits backward
d) Low scores are obtained on similarities and digits forward
45. Compared to patients with depression, those with dementia of the Alzheimer’s subtype typically
a) Suffer vegetative symptoms such as loss of appetite, disturbed sleep and constipation
b) Display intact structure and content of speech
c) Have signs of aphasia, ataxia, or agnosia
d) May display careless drawings and construction, but improve given extra time and encouragement
46. In Lewy Body Dementia, all of the following are true except
a) Level of arousal fluctuates throughout the day
b) Visual hallucinations are common
c) Parkinsonian type symptoms are noted, but are not often responsive to l-dopa
d) Lewy bodies are found in the basal ganglia
47. This disorder is characterized by parkinsonian symptoms, psychosis, and hepatic
dysfunction:
a) Progressive supranuclear palsy (PSP)
b) Wilson’s disease
c) Shy Drager syndrome
d) Olivopontocerebellary atrophy
48. Supplementary motor area partial seizures often include:
a) Vertigo, contralateral numbness, tingling, burning, sensation of movement,
aphasia/hemineglect, eyes/head deviate
b) Fencing posture with extension of contralateral upper extremity, tonic posturing, speech arrest and unusual sounds
c) Elaborate motor automatism, making unusual sounds,autonomic changes, olfactory hallucinations, and incontinence
d) Visual hallucinations, or seeing flashes/lights, scotoma/hemianopia in contralateral visual field, nystagmoid/oculogyric jerks, eye blinking
49. When asked to demonstrate how to use scissors, a patient with this type of apraxia may open and close their index and middle fingers to represent the scissors:
a) Ideomotor
b) Ideational
c) Limb-kinetic
d) Constructional
50. The dorsolateral frontal cortex is important for:
a) Arousal and activation
b) Spatial selective attention
c) Response initiation, inhibition
d) Sequencing, persistence, switching
51. Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of deep brain stimulation for Parkinson’s Disease:
a) It is highly effective in treating rigidity, but can negatively impact processing speed and executive functioning
b) It is highly effective in improving apathy associated with Parkinson’s Disease
c) It is highly effective in improving executive functioning
d) It is not effective in reducing tremor
52. You work in a hospital setting with a medical population. Which of the following statements about the use of symptom validity testing is true?
a) Patients should be told the names of the symptom validity tests that were used during the assessment.
b) Based on failure of one or more symptom validity tests, you can safely conclude that your client is malingering.
c) Alerting your client that symptom validity testing will be used in the assessment has been shown to routinely improve effort on testing.
d) It is appropriate to warn clients that methods for detecting exaggeration and poor effort are part of the assessment process.
53. The most consistent neuropsychological deficit seen in Childhood Absence Epilepsy is:
a) Verbal Memory Deficits
b) Visual Memory Deficits
c) Language Deficits
d) Global Cognitive Delays (i.e., mental retardation)
54. The initial symptom seen in children with Landau-Kleffner Syndrome is typically:
a) Loss of social contact
b) Intention Tremor
c) Auditory Agnosia
d) Constructional Apraxia
55. The most frequently reported symptom in individuals with Multiple Sclerosis is:
a) Memory Impairment
b) Attention/processing speed deficits
c) Headache
d) Fatigue
56. Which Multiple Sclerosis Subtype is typically associated with the LEAST cognitive impairment?
a) Relapsing Remitting
b) Secondary Progressive
c) Primary Progressive
d) None of the above have associated cognitive deficits
57. Which neurocutaneous syndrome is associated with reduced intelligence, optic pathway gliomas, and an overall decrease of high signal intensity lesions on T2 weighted MRI with increasing age:
a) Neurofibromatosis – Type 1
b) Sturge-Weber syndrome
c) Neurofibromatosis – Type 2
d) Tuberous Sclerosis
58. Which class of medications boasts the best support for treatment of executive dysfunction and problems with sustained attention?
a) Benzodiazepines, such as Klonopin
b) Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRI’s), such as Prozac
c) alpha-2a adrenergic agonists, such as guanfacine
d) Stimulants, such as methylphenidate
59. What is a potential problem in attempting to use the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) in the diagnosis of mild Traumatic Brain Injury?
a) A ceiling effect
b) A floor effect
c) An age effect
d) A practice effect
60. Which of the following is NOT a feature of somatization disorder?
a) Symptoms involve multiple organ systems
b) Early onset and chronic course of physical symptoms, regardless of mood state
c) Symptoms are not intentionally produced or feigned.
d) Preoccupation with fears of having a specific disease
61. A 25 year old, right handed female patient is referred to you for a baseline neuropsychological assessment with concerns because her 56 year old father was recently diagnosed with Huntington’s disease. She discusses genetic testing with you, specifically for the IT -15 gene. You should counsel the following in her consideration whether or not to participate in genetic counseling.
a) Every biological son or daughter born to a parent with HD has a 50 percent chance of inheriting the disease
b) Paternal transmission increases the risk of inheritance for females to approximately 60 percent.
c) She should request a different test because the IT-15 gene is not associated with HD
d) She should not worry as HD is inherited through maternal transmission only.
62. Which of the following neurodevelopmental disorders is characterized by short stature, webbed neck, ptosis, hypertelorism, low set ears, high arched palate, low set ears, generally lowered IQ but relatively preserved verbal skills, and is found among girls and boys?
a) Noonan syndrome
b) Turner syndrome
c) Williams syndrome
d) Marfan’s syndrome
63. In your clinical practice, you receive a referral for neuropsychological assessment of a 20 year old female with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) who is complaining of memory and attention difficulties that are affecting her performance at work. The patient smokes marijuana daily and has done so for 3-4 years. Which is the best course of action in this situation:
a) Conduct the neuropsychological assessment as you normally would. There are no cognitive effects associated with marijuana use.
b) Conduct a neuropsychological assessment but be sure to include effort tests in your test battery.
c) Conduct the neuropsychological assessment to address the referral question, requesting that the patient not use marijuana on the day of the assessment.
d) Conduct the neuropsychological assessment to address the referral question, only if the patient is able to abstain from marijuana use for 30 days prior to testing.
64. What distinguishes PD from atypical parkinsonism?
a) Atypical parkinsonism is not associated with bradykinesia
b) Symptoms are bilateral and symmetrical in PD but asymmetrical in atypical parkinsonism
c) Atypical parkinsonism is associated with both resting and postural tremor
d) PD responds to levodopa whereas atypical parkinsonism does not.
65. Symptoms of hydrocephalus include all but which of the following:
a) Headache, nausea, vomiting
b) Cognitive impairment
c) Papilledema, decreased vision
d) 10th nerve palsies
66. The following statements about Alzheimer’s disease and Pick’s disease are true, except:
a) Both are characterized by amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles
b) Both involve cortical atrophy
c) Both are associated with aphasic deficits
d) Medial temporal regions are more extensively affected in Alzheimer’s than Pick’s
67. Which of the following is typically preserved in early Alzheimer’s disease?
a) Word finding
b) Visual-spatial and constructional abilities
c) Recognition memory
d) Behaviour regulation
68. The most important factor to consider when interpreting discrepancies between tests scores in children is:
a) the base rate of the discrepancy
b) the magnitude of the discrepancy
c) the statistical significance of the discrepancy
d) the child’s age
69. Which of the following anti-epileptic medications is often associated with memory and verbal fluency difficulties at higher doses or when dosage is rapidly increased?
a) topirimate (Topamax)
b) gabapentin (Neurontin)
c) lamotrigine (Lamictal)
d) levetiracetam (Keppra)
70. Neglect is considered to be a failure to respond/report or orient to novel stimuli…
a) As a result of a circumscribed lesion to primary motor/sensory areas
b) Due to deficits in the individual’s ability to adequately perceive and interpret his/her environment
c) Resulting from lesions that are ipsilateral to perceived neglect
d) Focal and possibly generalized lesions involving right parietal/frontal lesions
71. A 17-year old adolescent comes to you after sustaining an mTBI in a fender bender. There was a brief loss of consciousness at the scene (i.e., <30 seconds), Glasgow Coma Scale was 15 in the upon arrival of EMTs 15 minutes post accident, and CT scan unremarkable in the ER 3 hours post-accident. Your best course of action in assessing this individual would be to:
a) Obtain educational records from grade school to help rule out pre-existing cognitive difficulties.
b) Utilize several ‘effort tests’ in your battery to rule out malingering or factitious disorder.
c) Wait at least 10 days to evaluate this individual, as the effects of a concussion would not be expected to persist for much more than a week
d) All of the above
72 The standard deviation of a test is equal to:
a) 2 times the variance
b) ½ the variance
c) Variance, squared
d) The square root of the variance
73. Which of the following is not true about the association between Parkinson’s Disease and depression?
a) Depression is unrelated to severity of motor symptoms
b) Depression is distinguishable for its greater anxiety component
c) Depression in PD has a high remittance rate and is amenable to treatment
d) Depression does not improve significantly when treatment with L-Dopa reduces disability
74. A lawyer representing a patient’s family requests to observe all testing conducted with the 7 year old patient and to have the child’s parents sit with the child during testing. Your best course of action in ensuring valid assessment results is to:
a) Allow both the lawyer and the parents to observe testing, to ensure that there is transparency in your assessment.
b) Allow the parents, but not the lawyer, to sit in on the evaluation to ensure the child is comfortable in the testing situation
c) Allow neither the parents nor the lawyer to sit in on the evaluation
d) Allow a medical resident, but neither the parents nor lawyer, to sit in on the evaluation
75. Neurons in the _____ are the principal source of serotonin production in the CNS.
a) Caudate
b) Globus pallidus
c) Substantia nigra
d) Rostral and caudal Raphe
76. The finding of periventricular white matter hyperintensities on MRI has a:
a) High specificity for post-infectious encephalitis
b) High specificity for cranial radiation injury
c) High sensitivity for multiple sclerosis but poor specificity
d) Neither high sensitivity or specificity for adrenoleukodystrophy
77. Wilson’s disease, an autosomal recessive disease of copper metabolism, has an early affinity for degeneration of the ____, resulting in _____.
a) Prefrontal cortex, disinhibited behavior
b) Cerebellum, tremor
c) Striatum, tremor
d) Hippocampus, psychosis
78. Dr. X is using a screening measure to identify patients with a rare condition and later compares the proportion of those who test positive on the screening measure with a “gold standard” measure of the rare condition. Dr. X is testing the screening measure’s:
a) sensitivity
b) positive predictive power
c) negative predictive power
d) specificity
79. Kluver-Bucy syndrome is associated with
a) Aggressive behavior, hyper-orality, and hyper-sexuality
b) Nonaggressive behavior, hyper-orality and hyper-sexuality
c) Aggressive behavior, hyper-orality and hypo-sexuality
d) Nonaggressive behavior, hypo-orality, and hypo-sexuality
80. You are testing a 35-year female patient, with 14 years of education. She was diagnosed with Bipolar II disorder 13 years ago and is currently asymptomatic. You would expect her FSIQ to be:
a) Within normal limits
b) Invalid due to attention and motivation difficulties
c) One SD below the mean
d) One SD above the mean
81. A lesion in the right lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) of the thalamus, may cause:
a) Monocular visual field defects
b) Right homonymous visual field defects
c) Left homonymous visual field defects
d) Bitemporal visual field defects
82. The following are true of motor neglect except for:
a) Is characterized by better movement in the ipsilesional rather than contralateral space
b) Includes reluctance to move limbs on the left (limb akinesia or intentional neglect)
c) Includes a delay in initiating movement (hypokinesia)
d) Occurs because of damage to the corticospinal system
83. Which of the following scores is likely to be a relative strength for a child with autism with fluent speech who is assessed at age 6:
a) Executive functions as measured on the Rey Complex Figure Task
b) Verbal Comprehension index on the WISC-IV
c) Theory of Mind as measured on the NEPSY-II
d) Word Reading as measured on the WIAT-III
84. Which can be used to indirectly measure regional brain activity during seizures and help localize their region of onset
a. Perfusion MRI
b. BOLD fMRI
c. Diffusion MRI
d. Magnetic Resonance Spectroscopy
85. Your patient demonstrates poor letter formation, the inability to write on a line, and writes over the model of a sentence he is supposed to be copying. His letters are not slanted, his spacing is even, he can spell irregular words, and he writes without paraphasic errors. You conclude he has:
a. Lexical agraphia
b. Pure agraphia
c. Spatial agraphia
d. Fluent agraphia
86. Mood and motivational states can affect immune status and appetite through connections with the:
a) Thalamus
b) Frontal lobe
c) Hypothalamus
d) Brainstem centers
87. In which of the following situations should you be most likely to chose population-based rather than demographically-adjusted norms?
a) Making a diagnosis of mental retardation
b) Making a diagnosis of dementia
c) Assessing cognitive strengths and weakness in a patient with multiple sclerosis
d) Assessing the cognitive implications of a traumatic brain injury
88. Which of the following statements best reflects the most current research on radiation-related cognitive effects in children treated for central nervous system tumors?
a) Neglect and visual-spatial difficulties are the most common cognitive impairments.
b) Cognitive deficits are related to the dose and total area of the brain irradiated.
c) The cognitive effects of radiation are minimized when children are also treated with chemotherapies.
d) Cognitive deficits post-radiation treatment typically resolve within 12-24 months.
89. Dr. X is a neuropsychologist in a large urban centre and has received a referral for a 38 year-old male following a work-related head injury. The patient is a new immigrant from Ghana whose first language is Twi but is described as having “conversational” English skills. Dr. X does not speak Twi herself, nor does she know of any neuropsychologists in the area who speak Twi. What is Dr. X’s best course of action in this situation?
a) Request that the patient bring a family member to the assessment who speaks both Twi and English and proceed with the assessment using the family member as an interpreter.
b) Begin the assessment with the patient, using only non-verbal tests and a verbal list-learning measure with the word list translated into Twi using an on-line language translation program.
c) Conduct the neuropsychological assessment in English, but note in the report that the interpretation of results should be viewed with caution because of cultural and language issues.
d) Consider whether she can accept the referral and conduct the evaluation within the boundaries of her competence and if not, decline the referral.
90. __________Syndrome is characterized by face, arm and leg weakness, aphasia and neglect.
a) Anterior communicating artery
b) Middle cerebral artery
c) Posterior communicating artery
d) Posterior cerebral artery
91. Which of the following statements is not true about Tourette’s Syndrome (TS)?
a) Diagnosis is based on the presence of either motor tics or vocal tics that begin before age 18 years.
b) TS often occurs comorbidly with obsessive-compulsive disorder.
c) TS is associated with deficits in attention and executive functioning.
d) Pharmaceutical treatments for TS act on the dopamine system.
92. Which of the following tumors would be most likely to cause bitemporal hemianopia?
a. Meningioma
b. Medulloblastoma
c. Pituitary adenoma
d. Pineoblastoma
93. Which of the following statements is true regarding the relationship between subjective memory complaints and objective memory performance in neurological populations?
a) Correlations between subjective memory complaints and objective memory performance are high.
b) Correlations between subjective memory complaints and objective memory performance are moderate.
c) Correlations between subjective memory complaints and objective memory performance are low and are generally mediated by the patient’s age.
d) Correlations between subjective memory complaints and objective memory performance are low and are generally mediated by the patient’s mood and anxiety symptoms.
94. Receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curves are used to:
a) Determine the diagnostic accuracy of a given test or helping to determine which of two tests is more accurate for diagnosing a certain condition.
b) Determine the effects of practice on an individual’s test-retest scores
c) Transform non-normally distributed score distributions
d) Determine effect sizes.
95. Disorders of neuronal cell migration, such as lissencephaly and polymicrogyria are often associated with:
a) Cerebral palsy
b) Facial dysmorphology and attention problems
c) Mental retardation and seizures
d) Agenesis of the corpus callosum
96. Which of the following statements is false regarding the apolipoprotein E-4 (ApoE-4) gene:
a) It increases susceptibility to Alzheimer’s Disease.
b) It is related to earlier onset of Alzheimer’s Disease.
c) It increases susceptibility to Lewy Body Dementia.
d) It reduces the efficacy of acetylcholinesterase inhibitor therapy in patients with Alzheimer’s Disease.
97. Mutism, ataxia and emotional lability are features of:
a) Marfan’s Syndrome
b) Posterior fossa syndrome following resection of a cerebellar tumor in childhood
c) Dandy-Walker syndrome
d) Lead exposure in childhood
98. Which of the following statements is correct regarding third party observers of neuropsychological assessments:
a) Informed consent provided by the patient is sufficient to allow a third party to observe.
b) The presence of third party observers may violate standardized test administration procedures and limit interpretation of the results.
c) Third party observers are permissible as long as the observer does not take notes or use any recording devices.
d) Third party observers of assessments are not permissible in any circumstances.
99. Which of the following features of depression is not commonly seen in individuals with Parkinson’s Disease?
a) Anhedonia
b) Apathy
c) Suicide attempts
d) Sleep disturbance
100. Relative to the childhood symptoms of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) the presentation of ADHD in adults is:
a) Less likely to include executive dysfunction
b) Less likely to include hyperactivity
c) Less likely to include inattention
d) More likely to include features of Oppositional Defiant Disorder.